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SOLVED: Show that the function (x) contraction (0,1) even though it has no fixed point Why doesn this violate Banach fixed point theorem Contraction Mapping Theorem: [Hint: Given points x,Y in the
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Gabriel Peyré on Twitter: "Banach fixed point theorem ensures existence of a unique fixed point for contracting maps. The proof is constructive by iterating the map. https://t.co/XxYR1WfMou https://t.co/1GftPkPFFy" / Twitter
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